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Exam Code: 6401-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya IP Office Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 When using Voice Conference Notification in the Conference Center Software, which three options
does the participant have when they are called? (Choose three.)
A. Wait
B. Accept
C. Decline
D. Join later
E. Participant is unavailable
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.2 A customer calls and informs you that every time they call voicemail they get a busy signal. The
customer sends you the trace shown below:
0ms PRN: Monitor Started IP=192.168.42.203 IP406 DS 4.0(5) IPOffice_1
1ms PRN: LAW=U PRI=2, BRI=0, ALOG=4, ADSL=0, VCOMP=16, MDM=2, WAN=0
MODU=0 LANM-0, CkSRC=0 VMAIL=0(VER=1 TYP=1) CALLS=39(TOT=20123)
Does the trace show enough information to indicate to the customer where to begin problem resolution
and what the problem may be?
A. Yes, the voicemail is not connected to the system.
B. Yes, the Auto Attendant is using up all of the voicemail channels.
C. No, I would need to see a trace of them calling voicemail.
D. No, I would also need a Debug_View trace of the voicemail.
Answer: A

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NO.3 When using Small Community Networking which two features require the Small Community Advanced
License to function? (Choose two.)
A. Hot Desking
B. Hot Desking across the SCN
C. playing queued announcements
D. Break Out dialing
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 You want to install ContactStore on a PC separate from the VoiceMail Pro PC . Which three steps would
you need to complete for ContactStore to function separately? (Choose three.)
A. Verify that the Voice Recording Library on the VoiceMail Pro server is shared on the customer's
network.
B. Verify that the ContactStore service has read and write permissions to the Voice Recording Library
Share.
C. Verify that the ContactStore registry settings have been updated to see the Voice Recording Library
share.
D. Verify that the VoiceMail Pro registry settings have been updated to point to the Voice Recording
Library share.
E. Verify that the ContactStore licenses have been loaded onto the PC running the ContactStore
application.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 Which two e-mail protocols are used by VoiceMail Pro to perform voicemail to e-mail? (Choose two.)
A. POP 3
B. SMTP
C. MAPI
D. IMAP
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 Which IP port does Internet Explorer use to access the ContactStore Web page?
A. 8080
B. 8000
C. 8888
D. 8990
Answer: C

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NO.7 IP Office has a feature, "Conference Meet Me" which allows users to join or start a specific numbered
conference.
Which IP Office Platform does NOT support "Conference Meet Me"?
A. IP Office 401ng
B. IP Office 500 Professional
C. IP Office 403
D. IP Office 500 Standard
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer has two IP Office systems connected using Small Community Networking with centralized
voicemail. When calling from one system to another, calls intermittently get one-way audio. Which two are
necessary to begin troubleshooting this issue? (Choose two.)
A. System Status Application
B. Sniffer trace
C. IP Office Monitor trace information
D. Voicemail console trace
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 What information do you need from a customer to be able to reproduce a call park problem? (Choose
three.)
A. accurate description of the problem
B. a System Monitor trace of the problem
C. a Network Assessment
D. the system configuration
E. information on the phones and lines being used
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.10 A remote user wants to gain access to the network when using the RAS server.
Under which two conditions would you create an IP route.? (Choose two.)
A. when the remote user's dial-up connection method contains a DHCP address that is on a different
subnet
B. when the user is on the same subnet as the IP Office
C. when the remote user's dial-up connection method contains a static IP address that is on a different
subnet
D. when the IP Office's DHCP mode is set to Server or Dial In and the PC connection method is set to
obtain an IP Address Automatically
Answer: A,C

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NO.11 A customer is receiving calls to a hunt group and the callers are reporting that they are being forced to
wait much longer than VoiceMail Pro reported to them during the queued message. What is a possible
cause for this?
A. The hunt group has a priority set to 1.
B. The hunt group has a priority set to 3.
C. There are two routes going to the hunt group. Each has different priorities set.
D. Users in the hunt group have inconsistent priority settings. The users with a priority set to 3 are always
busy.
Answer: C

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NO.12 How much space does a recording in VoiceMail Pro use on a hard drive?
A. 1MB per minute
B. 500KB per minute
C. 2MB per minute
D. 1.5MB per minute
Answer: A

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NO.13 A user (ext. 199) reports that their IMS client displays an error message when attempting to ring a
phone. What are three reasons that would prevent the IMS program from calling the phone? (Choose
three.)
A. The user profile in Manager has "199" entered as the user name.
B. The phone is set for "Do Not Disturb".
C. The user's "Multi Line Option" is set to "Answer Pre-select".
D. The user mailbox is set to "Blank" under Outlook Tools/Integrated Messaging.
E. The user's profile has "System Phone" is set to "On".
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.14 A customer wants to have a simple conference bridge with four permanent bridges set up off of a menu
in VoiceMail Pro. The customer also wants each bridge protected with a different static PIN. Where in the
setup of this scenario would you enter the PIN?
A. on the General tab in the menu action
B. on the General tab for each transfer action
C. on the Telephone Number field in the IP Office Short Code
D. in the Properties box for each option in the Touch Tone tab in the menu action
Answer: B

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NO.15 An IP Office telephone user reports that a phone is not ringing for outside calls.
What are three possible reasons why this is happening? (Choose three.)
A. The IP Office locale is set to "A-Law".
B. The phone does not have the user profile logged onto the phone.
C. The ring volume is too low to hear.
D. The phone has been set to "Offhook Station".
E. The phone is set to "Do Not Disturb".
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.16 You have a customer who has loop start analog trunks. Their callers report that the line rings much
longer than the internal extensions ring. What is a possible cause of this problem?
A. The line prefix has not been correctly configured.
B. The Ring Off Maximum settings for the trunks are too high.
C. Trunks are set for Loop Start ICLID on the IP Office.
D. The trunk is supplying a long Caller ID string and the Long CLI option has not been checked in
Manager.
Answer: C

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NO.17 When tracing a system with the System Monitor program you notice that the Roll Over Log button is
grayed out. What is causing this?
A. You have not set your log preferences.
B. You have a firewall in place.
C. You are monitoring the wrong system.
D. You have paused the screen logging, and are no longer gathering data.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which two are used to turn on Small Community Networking within the main IP Office 500? (Choose
two.)
A. RAS
B. FastStart
C. Voice Networking
D. Professional License Enabled
Answer: C,D

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NO.19 What line type supports the IP Office R 4.2 mobile call control functionality?
A. IP DECT Line
B. SIP (RFC2833)
C. IP Line (H.323)
D. Analogue Trunk
Answer: B

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has two sites, each with an IP Office linked via a private digital line (E1/T1). The head office is
connected to the public network through a digital exchange line. The remote site gains access to the
public network via the head office.
How should Clock Quality be set in the IP Office on the lines marked X and Y in the exhibit?
A. X - Network -- Y - Fallback
B. X ?Fallback -- Y - Fallback
C. X ?Network -- Y - Unsuitable
D. X ?Fallback -- Y - Unsuitable
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 7004-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura® Maintenance Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Consider a company ¯ s di ali ng pl an shown i n t he exhi bit and an exa mpl e f or it s r equi r e ment s:
A station user at the company, with Location Code 221, placed an ESN call, dialing 7-221-2581. This
would be an On-Net call and the NARS programming must remove the LOC code and dial the DN
internally.
What programming would remove the location code for a call dialed within the originating Communication
Server 1000 to a DN on that same Communication Server 1000?
A. Each site would have its own Location Code programmed as a Home Location Code(HLOC) under
Translation Table #1 in their CS 1000.
B. The location codes for each site would be programmed under the LOC programming in Translation
Table #2 at all locations.
C. Home NPA Codes (HNPA) for each site would be programmed under Translation Table #1 at each
location in their CS 1000.
D. Each site would have the Location Codesfor all sites programmed as Home Location Codes (HLOC) in
Translation Table #1 of their CS 1000.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer ¯ s pr ogr a mmed dat abase shown i n t he exhi bit and AC 1 = 9, over whi ch RLI will a call
placed to 9-1-912-534-2222 complete?
A. RLI 9
B. RLI 4
C. RLI 3
D. RLI 2
E. call will not complete as dialed
Answer: B

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the customer Route List index shown in the exhibit, what is the first expensive route that a
call placed on that RLI could take?
A. Entry 0
B. Entry 1
C. Entry 2
D. Entry 3
Answer: C

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the SDRR programming options shown in the exhibit, which SDRR programming would allow a
user to dial 1-900-867-3333, but not successfully dial any other 1-900 based number?
A. Table 1
B. Table 2
C. Table 3
D. Table 4
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer has a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. You have been asked to
add the Call Pickup feature to the ten IP telephones in the sales department. The customer wants to be
sure active calls are not lost when the change are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled allowed you to ensure changes to the telephones
are not transmitted to the call server until the telephone is not busy?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system at their site. Their sales
department is expanding and you have been asked to add Ave new telephones with the same capabilities
as the existing telephones in the department.
Which programming command should you use to complete this task.?
A. Move to DN
B. Move from TN
C. Copy from DN
D. Copy from TN
Answer: D

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NO.7 The Satellite Link Control feature ensures that the configuration of a call does not include more than one
communications satellite trunk. Tandem trunk calls, when connected through more than one
communication satellite trunk, are subject to transmission distortion due to propagation.
Which parameters are required to be equipped or configured for Satellite Link Control in the
Communication Server 1000?
A. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
B. Route must be configured with STD or ETN signaling.
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
C. Network Transfer (NXFR) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN2 or ESN3 signaling
Route must be designated as a satellite route.
D. Network Signaling (NSIG) package must be equipped.
Route must be configured with ESN3 or ESN5 signaling.
Route must be programmed with a Traveling Class of Service (TCOS)
Answer: A

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has asked if the Communication Server 1000 RIs. 7 x system can route anyone that dial an
unassigned number in the customer ¯ s DI D r ange t o t he Att endant.
In reviewing the current configuration as shown in the exhibit, what do you conclude?
(Choose two)
A. only internalstation users are routing to the Attendant
B. internal station users and non tie line users are routing to the Attendant
C. all caller types are receiving an overflow tone
D. NET_DATA Attendant and tie trunk users are receiving an overflow tone
Answer: B

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NO.9 An administrator is programming an NRS for the first time on a new Communication Server 1000
system RIS. 7.0 system. When attempting to add the Service Domain, it cannot be added as the Add
button is grayed out in the NRS.
Which tasked should you perform to resolve this issue?
A. reinstall the Signaling Server Software
B. reinstall the NRS software
C. switch from Standby database to Active database
D. switch from Active database to Standby database
Answer: D

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NO.10 For a situation where you use the CDP feature at a switch equipped with the MARS software package,
which statement are correct? (Choose two)
A. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that are the same as the assignedNARS Access Cades.
B. Use steering codes tor CDP calls that aredistinct from thoseassigned NARS Access Cades.
C. You can integrate CDP numbers with the NARS Uniform Dialing Plan (UDP).
D. Youcannot shareRoute Lists,Digit Manipulation tables and Time-of-Day schedule withNARS.
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: 6209
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura Contact Center CCT and Multimedia Implementation Exam)
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Total Q&A: 53 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A technician has been asked to generate outbound and multimedia reports based on data stored
within the Contact Center Multimedia (CCMM) database. The technician must also access multimedia
data sources through the Report Creation Wizard for reporting customization. The CCMM server has
been added to the Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA).
Which additional step is required to complete this task?
A. Assign the CCMM server as a reporting server for the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS)
B. Add the Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) server to theCCMA
C. Add the Microsoft Exchange server to the CCMA
D. Assign the CCT server as a reporting server for the CCMS
Answer: A

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NO.2 A technician has installed Communication Control Toolkit (CCT). Which three elements are added to the
event viewer? (Choose three)
A. NCCT Call Log
B. NCCT Security
C. NCCT Audit Log
D. NCCT Error Log
E. NCCT System Log
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.3 The technician needs to install an Avaya Aura Contact center in a co-resident configuration to support a
contact center with less than 200 agents or less than 12000 calls per hour. The Contact Center Support
Multimedia Outbound and Universal Networking. The co-resident applications link through Contact Center
Manager Server, License Manager, Contact Center Manager infrastructure, Communication Control
Toolkit, Contact Center Multimedia, Server Utility and Avaya Media Server. For this installation, what is the
drive letter and size of the hard disk partition required for the Avaya Aura Contact Center application?
A. C:\ and 60 GB
B. D:\ and 80 GB
C. E:\ and 120 GB
D. F:\ and 300 GB
Answer: B

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NO.4 The technician has installed a Contact Center multimedia (CCMM)email and web services to the
Contact Center solution.
What do the customers email and web server connect to?
A. Customer LAN
B. Contact Center Server Subnet
C. Customer server ELAN
D. Contact Center Server ELAN
Answer: A

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NO.5 An agent with Avaya Aura Agent Desktop cannot log into the Contact Center. The technician needs to
verify network connectivity from the agent PC to the Contact Center Multimedia server.
Which command is used to verify the physical network connection between agent PC to the CCMM
server?
A. Arp
B. Ping
C. Tracert
D. Ipconfig
Answer: B

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NO.6 A technician has installed Contact Center Multimedia (CCMM) within the Contact Center environment.
Multimedia skillsets must be defined in the Contact Center Administration (CCMA) for multimedia routing
to occur.
What name convention differentiates multimedia skillsets from voice skillsets?
A. Add a multimedia suffix to the skillset name
B. Add a multimedia prefix to the skillset name
C. Add a multimedia disposition code to the skillset name
D. Add multimedia to the skillset name.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Where can the settings are configured for the inbound mail handler (IMH) such as the time between
intervals?
A. Through the Contact Center Manager Administration Network Configurations screen
B. Through the email server
C. Through the Outbound Campaign Manager
D. Through the Multimedia Administrator
Answer: A

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NO.8 A network drive is being mapped that will be used to setup the Contact Center Multimedia database.
The following information is provided:
-The Contact Center Multimedia server name is CCMM001
-The Contact Center Multimedia server IP address is 192.167.140.15
-The backup server name is backup004
-The backup server IP address is 192.167.140.20
-The backup folder name is dbbackup
What is the UNC path for the mapped network drive.?
A. \192.167.140.15\dbbackup
B. \CCMM001\dbbackup
C. \192.167.140.20\dbbackup
D. \dbbackup\backup004
Answer: B

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NO.9 A technician is adding an agent in the Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) utility. But no
option to add Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) user account details is presented.
What option must be taken to solve this problem?
A. The agent user type must be set to supervisor agent
B. Enter the SIP address of the agent ­ t he vo i ce u ri se r ve r
C. The Create CCT agent
option must be selected
D. The agent first and last name must be populated
Answer: C

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NO.10 You have installed Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) and need to add the CCT server in the Contact
Center Administration (CCMA) web interface and associate it to a Contact Center Manager Server
(CCMS). After adding the CCT server, you are unable to associate it with the CCMS, what is a problem
with this installation?
A. No CCT users have been created
B. The CCT server does not have valid licenses
C. The CCT server has not been added in CCMA
D. Open Queue has not been enabled on the CCMS
Answer: D

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NO.1 By default the ERS 8000 is configured for warm standby. After installation of a new ERS
solution with dual CPUs, which three actions need to be Perform on the ERS configuration to ensure
high availability mode is enabled and will function correctly? (Choose three)
A. Set the high availability CPU boot flag to true.
B. Set the warm standby CPU hoot flag to false. C. Set the save to standby CPU boot flag to true.
D. Save the boot.cfg conflg file and reset the switch to activate the changes.
E. Install the high availability license file.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 When configuring a new Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8000 using the default interface, the
attempt to load an ACLI configuration fails because the default interface is the CLI. How is the ACLI
interface obtained?
A. Change the interface type in the config.cfg file.
B. Change the ACLI boot flag and save the boot configuration file.
C. Exit the CLI and choose ACLI at the interface manager prompt.
D. Use the abort command and enter 'no' at the default interface.
Answer: C

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NO.3 The attempt to manage an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8000 using a Virtual Route
Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) address was not successful. What is causing this problem?
A. The virtual router identifier is 0.
B. The data center interface is set as a critical IP interface.
C. A real IP address is required for management access not a VRRP address.
D. The virtual router identifier is configured for the VRRP IP address owner.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What does Ping snoop identify?
A. The path that IP traffic takes over an MLT or SMLT
B. The rate of IP traffic flow
C. Which port filter is best to use on MLT networks
D. Rate limiting for ICMP traffic
Answer: A

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NO.5 Traceroute allows a route to be traced to a network using an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS)
8600 CLI command. How could you use it to limit the number of hops the traceroute reports?
A. Configure the -P (base UDP port) to the number of maximum number hops.
B. Configure the -q (number of probes per TTL) to the number maximum number of hops.
C. Configure the -m (maximum TTL value) to the number of maximum number of hops.
D. Configure the -w (wait time per probe) to the number of maximum number of hops.
Answer: C

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NO.6 The SNMP counters check for authorization failures and other types error conditions. Which of
these SNMP error conditions is displayed in Enterprise Device Manager?
A. PCAP packet capture counters
B. In Bad Community Names counters
C. Fan Failure packet counters
D. Power Supply Failure packet counters
Answer: D

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NO.7 The Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 switch includes a means to fine tune the memory
resources by allowing the record allocations to be allowed. An ERS 8600 running Release 5.0 needs
to be configured to be optimized for multicast traffic. Which command alters the ERS 8600 to
increases the default allocation of Multicast by 50 percent?
A. Config sys set record record reserve MGID + 50
B. Config sys set max-vlan-resource-reservation 4096
C. Config sys set show sys mgid usage
D. Config sys set multicast-resource-reservation 3073
Answer: D

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NO.8 A campus network requirement is to introduce Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) in the
existing Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600-based core. The technician has to configure VRF on the
ERS 8600. Which statement represents the order for configuring a new VRF?
A. Creating a new VLAN, add an IP address to the VLAN, create the VRF in the VLAN configuration.
B. Create VRF, change context to the new VRF, add an IP address, create a new VLAN, and move the
VLAN to the new VRF.
C. Create a VRF, change context to the new VRF, create a new VLAN, add an IP address to the VLAN.
D. Create a VRF, create a new VLAN, move the VLAN to the new VRF, change context to the new VRF,
and add an IP Address.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What does the trace level 9 3 command accomplish?
A. It captures BGP events at a terse level.
B. It captures packets copied to the CPU at a verbose level.
C. It shows CPU utilization.
D. It captures RCC IP events at verbose level.
Answer: B

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NO.10 In a multicast campus, when should an ERS 8600 PIM interface be configured to run in passive
mode?
A. When the interface is used as an edge interface and is aggregating traffic.
B. When the interface is used as a core interface and needs to limit PIM messages to reduce the
system load.
C. When there are no unicast routing paths.
D. When more than one unicast routing protocol is in use.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which type of file does the replication process use to transfer content?
A. BIAR
B. REP
C. Binary
D. BOMain
Answer: A

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NO.2 What do you see when you view a Crystal Report instance that has both saved data and two
successful instances?
A. The latest data from the database
B. The oldest data from the database
C. The oldest successful instance
D. The newest successful instance
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which web language was used to develop InfoView?
A. Perl
B. Java
C. PHP
D. C++
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which replication object would you schedule?
A. Replication Job
B. Replication List
C. Replication Connection
D. Replication Package
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which three application servers can you deploy Web Archive (WAR) files to using wdeploy? (Choose
three.)
A. Oracle Containers for J2EE
B. SAPNetweaver
C. JRun
D. Sun Java Application Server
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 Four users in the Human Resources department and six users in the Finance department need to edit
existing Web Intelligence documents. How would you set-up a secure folder structure for the different
departments so that each group of users can edit existing Web Intelligence documents?
A. Modify advanced rights on all groups.
B. Apply a predefined access level to all folders.
C. Create a custom access level and apply it to all folders.
D. Modify advanced rights on a top level folder.
Answer: C

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NO.7 How do you set-up a configuration template for a Web Intelligence Processing Server?
A. Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to the Server Template area and click on Add
New Template.
B. Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to properties of the specific server and click
on Add New Template.
C. Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to the Server Template area and click on Set
Configuration Template.
D. Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to properties of the specific server and click
on Set Configuration Template.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Where are the properties for the Event Server stored?
A. In the boot.ini file on the machine where the Event Server is running
B. In the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C. In the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) bootstrap file
D. In the Event Server service properties
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which three are benefits to the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA).? (Choose three.)
A. Security
B. Administrative accessibility
C. Email notification
D. Reliability
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.10 Which directory is the bootstrap file saved in by default on the Windows platform?
A. Web Services
B. Logging
C. FileStore
D. Win32_x86
Answer: D

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Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Where should you configure the regional settings of a Web Intelligence document (WID)
within InfoView?
A. Local Settings
B. Browser Preferences
C. User Machine Settings
D. InfoView Preferences
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two are limitations of a detail object? (Choose two.)
A. It cannot be drilled on.
B. It cannot be used in the report filter.
C. It cannot be merged in a document.
D. It cannot be used in the WHERE statement of the query.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Your document displays all data in black. Which dialog box should you use to configure the
colors of your document data?
A. Document Palette
B. Document Formats
C. Display Preferences
D. Data Tracking Options
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which object types can you merge when using Multi Queries in a Web Intelligence
document(WID)?
A. Dimension - Detail
B. Measure - Measure
C. Dimension - Measure
D. Dimension - Dimension
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two Web Intelligence Rich Client authentication methods enable you to export Web
Intelligence documents (WID) to the Central Management Server (CMS)? (Choose two.)
A. LTM
B. LDAP
C. Offline
D. Enterprise
E. Standalone
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 What is the maximum number of sub-alerts that an alerter can contain?
A. 1
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which three layout options can you use when creating sections in a report? (Choose three.)
A. Relative Position
B. Start on New Page
C. Keep Blocks Together
D. Avoid Page Break in Section
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.8 What is the default behavior when creating a report from two queries from the same
universe?
A. Result produces two table blocks.
B. Dimension objects are automatically merged.
C. Results are shown on two different report tabs.
D. Dimension objects are not automatically merged.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which two statements are true about the AND operator? (Choose two.)
A. Used when any condition is met by two filters
B. Used when all conditions are met by two filters
C. Used when all conditions are met by more than two filters
D. Used when only one condition is met by any of the filters
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 Which three can you use to start the Web Intelligence Rich Client from? (Choose three.)
A. InfoView
B. Command Line
C. Start > All Programs
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are true about DLP policies? (Choose two)
A. Existing policies may be reordered.
B. Existing policies cannot be changed. They must be deleted and new policies
created to replace them.
C. The DLP administrator cannot create new policies; new polices must be
purchased from RSA .
D. Datacenter policies can be changed without ever losing the incremental scan
results and requiring a full scan.
E. Network, Datacenter, or Endpoint sections of a policy can be individually
disabled or enabled without affecting the other sections.
Answer: A, E

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NO.2 Which of the following requirements must be met to successfully run the DLP 7.0
Enterprise Manager installation program?
A. Minimum 2 gigabytes of available ram
B. Minimum 10 gigabytes of available space
C. Minimum Processor Speed of 1.950 GHZ
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the maximum number of DLP Network Sensors, Interceptors, and ICAP
Servers that can be managed by one DLP Network Controller?
A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. It depends on the license that has been purchased.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following endpoint actions can be detected, audited or blocked by the
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A. Screen capture
B. Printing to a file
C. Bluetooth File transfer
D. Copying to a floppy disk or hard drive
E. Copying a file from one network share to another network share
Answer: B, D

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NO.5 Automatic remediation actions can be configured in policy DLP Datacenter
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A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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