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Exam Code: 50-854
Exam Name: Novell (Cni-netware 5.1 advanced Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 152 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 You need to modify the bindery context and NetWare server name for the server. Which file
must you change?
A.SYS:SYSTEM\STARTUP.NCF
B.SYS:SYSTEM\AUTOEXEC.NCF
C.C:\NWSERVER\STARTUP.NCF
D.C:\NWSERVER\AUTOEXEC.NCF
Correct:B

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NO.2 Which statements are true regarding the Compatibility Mode Driver? (Choose 2.)
A.CMD encapsulates IPX packets within IP packets by adding an IP header.
B.In its migration agent mode, SCMD will not load if IPX is bound to a network board in the server.
C.IPX must be bound to the network board in the server before SCMD can be loaded in its default mode.
D.Workstations on IP-only segments need CMD configured in order to communicate with servers on
IPX-only segments.
Correct:A D

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NO.3 Which network administration tools can you use to create NDS objects? (Choose 3.)
A.ConsoleOne
B.NDS Manager
C.NetWare Administrator
D.NetWare Management Portal
E.Novell Application Launcher
Correct:A C D

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NO.4 Which type of DHCP object should you configure to manually assign an IP address to a specific
workstation on the network?
A.IP Address object
B.DHCP Subnet object
C.Subnet Pool object
D.Subnet Address Range object
Correct:A

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NO.5 NetWare has 4 types of loadable modules. Which modules control communication between the
server operating system and storage devices?
A.LAN Drivers
B.Disk Drivers
C.NLM Utilities
D.Name Space Modules
Correct:B

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NO.6 Which statement best describes a web application server?
A.A central location for public and private discussion groups.
B.A platform that provides the runtime environment for an application's business logic.
C.An application that lets users transfer files to and from the computer on the Internet.
D.An application that publishes documents and files on the World Wide Web or on an intranet.
Correct:B

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NO.7 What DOS utility is used for creating the DOS partition when installing NetWare 5.1?
A.FDISK
B.FORMAT
C.PARTITION
D.CHKDSK
Correct:A

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NO.8 Which NLM is used to configure Network Address Translation on a NetWare 5.1 server? Answer:
A.INETCFG.NLM
Correct:A

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NO.9 The Hung Console Screen is useful if you are unable to execute any commands at the server
console. Which hot key sequence would you use to bring up this screen?
A.Ctrl+Alt+Esc
B.Ctrl+Alt+Del
C.Ctrl+Alt+Tab
D.Ctrl+Shift+Esc
Correct:A

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NO.10 Which network administration tool is used to down, restart, or reset a server?
A.ConsoleOne
B.NDS Manager
C.NetWare Administrator
D.NetWare Management Portal
Correct:D

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NO.11 What is the maximum number of Certificate Authority objects that may exist in the NDS tree?
Answer:
A.1
Correct:A

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NO.12 What is the command to unload all modules from ADDRESS_SPACE2 and remove the address
space?
A.UNLOAD ADDRESS SPACE=ADDRESS_SPACE2
B.UNLOAD KILL ADDRESS SPACE=ADDRESS_SPACE2
C.UNLOAD MODULES ADDRESS SPACE=ADDRESS_SPACE2
D.UNLOAD ADDRESS SPACE=ADDRESS_SPACE2 MODULES=ALL
Correct:A

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NO.13 Which RConsole agent NLM do you run to access the console screens of a NetWare 5.1 server
over an IP connection?
A.AIO.NLM
B.RCONAG6.NLM
C.RCONSOLE.NLM
D.RCONSOLEJ.NLM
Correct:B

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NO.14 In a Public Key Cryptography system, which key do other parties use to validate the key
owner's digital signature?
A.Public key
B.Private key
C.Certificate key
D.Authentication key
Correct:A

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NO.15 What is the default method for an IP server to locate a migration agent?
A.Unicast
B.Multicast
C.Broadcast
D.SAP tables
E.DHCP query
F.Directed broadcast
Correct:B

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NO.16 In a Public Key Cryptography system, which key does the key owner use to decrypt data he
receives from other parties?
A.Public key
B.Private key
C.Certificate key
D.Authentication key
Correct:B

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NO.17 Which server console command do you use to prevent unauthorized users from loading NLMs
outside the SYS:SYSTEM directory? Answer:
A.SECURECONSOLE
Correct:A

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NO.18 When you are configuring DHCP, which object identifies the IP addresses available for dynamic
assignment?
A.DHCP Server object
B.Subnet Pool object
C.DNS-DHCP Locator object
D.Subnet Address Range object
Correct:D

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NO.19 What software provides the cryptography for the Novell Certificate Server? (The acronym is
acceptable.) Answer:
A.NICI
Correct:A

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NO.20 What NLF file allows you to install more than 1 license certificate at a time into license
Container objects?
A.Folders
B.Objects
C.Envelopes
D.Containers
Correct:C

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Exam Code: 50-684
Exam Name: Novell (Novell eDirectory Tools and Diagnostics )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 You are using the eMBox client to log into a server. The information required for login is
as follows:
- server's IP address is 10.0.0.1
- port number is 8008
- context for admin is slc.digitalair
-password is novell.
Given this information, what is the appropriate syntax to login from the eMBox client?
A. login 10.0.0.1:8008; admin.slc.digitalair.novell:
B. login admin.slc.digitalair:novell 10.0.0.1:8008
C. login 10.0.0.1:8008 admin.slc.digitalair novell
D. login 10.0.0.1:8008 -u admin.slc.digitalair -w novell -n
E. login -s 10.0.0.1 -p 8008 -u admin.slc.digitalair -w novell -n
Answer: E

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NO.2 When upgrading your first server to eDirectory 8.7, you may need to update the eDirectory
schema. On which server should the schema be updated?
A. The server you are upgrading to eDirectory 8.7.
B. The server that has a replica of the [Root] partition.
C. Any server that holds a replica of any partition of the tree.
D. A server that holds the master replica of any partition of the tree.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which are true statements when using the eDirectory Backup eMTool to back up and
restore Novell eDirectory 8.7? (Choose two.)
A. You can backup an attribute of just one object.
B. You can do a quick restore of an individual server.
C. You must be inside the firewall to do a backup or restore.
D. You can backup files on the server that are related to the database.
E. You should not backup your server until eDirectory has been shut down.
Answer: B, D

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NO.4 The DA3 server is preparing to synchronize schema. What servers will DA3 send schema
synchronization information to?
A. Only servers in DA3's poll list
B. All servers in the same tree as DA3
C. All servers sharing replica rings with DA3
D. Only servers in replica rings where DA3 is the Master
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which are default settings for an eDirectory 8.7 tree structure? (Choose 3.)
A. A Single Organization Unit object is created.
B. Three Organizational Unit objects are created.
C. eDirectory keeps the tree as one single partition.
D. The database if replicated to the first three servers running eDirectory.
E. The Admin, Server and Volume objects are created as children of [Root].
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.6 In an eDirectory 8.7 environment, the capabilities of which utilities are included in
iManager? (Choose two.)
A. DSVIEW
B. DSTRACE
C. DSMERGE
D. DSREPAIR
E. DSBROWSE
Answer: C, D

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NO.7 Which statements are true regarding transitive synchronization? (Choose two.)
A. The transitive vector attribute is not a synchronized attribute.
B. Transitive synchronization updates replicas in a sequential order.
C. The transitive vector attribute is located on any partition root object.
D. Transitive synchronization does not require a server to be able to talk with every server in the
replica ring.
E. Transitive synchronization allows subordinate references to participate in a normal replica
synchronization.
Answer: C, D

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NO.8 You have an eDirectory tree that contains 7 servers. Each server holds replicas as shown in
the exhibit. From the information given in the exhibit, which servers will hold a replica of
the schema partition?
A. All servers
B. The DA1 server only
C. All servers except DA7
D. The DA1, DA2 and DA6 servers only
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which X.500 Directory component replicates information from one Directory Information
Database to another?
A. The Directory System Agent
B. The Directory System Protocol
C. The Directory Access Protocol
D. The Directory Information Tree
E. The Directory Information Shadow Protocol
Answer: E

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NO.10 Which utilities can be used to view the schema synchronization process? (Choose two.)
A. iMonitor
B. iManager
C. ConsoleOne
D. MONITOR.NLM
E. DSTRACE.NLM
Answer: A, E

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NO.11 If a Directory System Agent cannot fulfill a request of a Directory User Agent, which X.500
directory component passes the information to another Directory System Agent?
A. The Directory Access Protocol
B. The Directory System Protocol
C. The Directory Information Tree
D. The Directory Information Database
E. The Directory Information Shadowing Protocol
Answer: B

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NO.12 Performing which partition operation will never cause the number of real objects in any
server's eDirectory database to change?
A. Move
B. Merge
C. Create
D. Add Replica
E. Remove Replica
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which statements are true regarding subordinate reference replicas? (Choose two.)
A. There can be multiple subordinate references per partition.
B. Subordinate references must reside on every server in the tree.
C. Subordinate references link a parent partition with its child partition.
D. A subordinate reference can be changed to be a master replica without losing information.
E. Subordinate references should be removed to help reduce traffic across the communication
channel.
Answer: A C

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NO.14 You are the system administrator for the SLC DigitalAir container. You are creating some
new user objects in this container. Which statements are true regarding the eDirectory
rights for these new users? (Choose two.)
A. The rights for the SLC.DigitalAir container has to itself will affect the new users.
B. The default rights granted to the new users depends on the tool used to create them.
C. The new users will not have any eDirectory rights unless they are manually assigned.
D. Tue new users will not have any eDirectory rights unless they are created with a template.
E. The schema information for the user class will grant the new users some default eDirectory
rights.
F. The new users will not have any eDirectory rights unless they are created with a template or
have rights manually assigned.
Answer: B, F

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NO.15 Which replica or replicas contain a complete copy of all object information of a partition?
A. Master
B. Master and read-only
C. Master and read/write
D. Master, read/write, and read-only
E. Master, read/write, read-only, and subordinate reference
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which replica type can fill original requests for object changes but passes off all partition
requests?
A. Master
B. Read/write
C. Read-only
D. Subordinate reference
Answer: B

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NO.17 RThomas is logging in to the DA4 server. The DA4 server does not hold a replica of the
partition where RThomas' user object exists. An external reference is created on the DA4
server containing information about RThomas user object. On the server with a replica of
the partition containing RThomas eDirectory also attempts to create an attribute pointing
to the DA4 server.
What is the name of this attribute?
A. Janitor
B. Obituary
C. Backlink
D. Flat cleaner
E. External reference
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which statements are true regarding subordinate reference replicas? (Choose two.)
A. Subordinate references only contain the partition root object.
B. Subordinate references link a parent partition with its child partition.
C. Subordinate references can be manually created by the administrator.
D. A subordinate reference can be changed to be a master replica without losing information.
E. Subordinate references should be removed to help reduce traffic across the communication
channel.
Answer: A, B

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NO.19 You created a new application object in the SLC.DigitalAir partition. After creating the
object you noticed a problem when running a health check. Using the information in the
exhibits, what is the best solution to try first?
A. Reset schema on the DA1 server.
B. Reset schema on the DA2 server.
C. Remove all replicas from the DA1 server.
D. Remove all replicas from the DA2 server.
E. Declare a new epoch on the Schema partition.
F. Remove eDirectory from the DA1 server and re-install.
G. Remove eDirectory from the DA2 server and re-install.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which Web-based utilities can you use to perform diagnostics and manage eDirectory 8.7?
A. iMonitor and iManager
B. iMonitor and Rconsole
C. iManager and ConsoleOne
D. iMonitor and Server Console Manager
E. iManager and Server Console Manager
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which replica type contains only the partition root object?
A. Master
B. Read/write
C. Read-only
D. Filtered replica
E. Subordinate reference
Answer: E

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NO.22 You have an eDirectory tree that contains 7 servers. Each server holds replicas as shown in
the exhibit. From the information given in the exhibit, which servers can you use to make
modifications to the schema partition?
A. All servers
B. The DA1 server only
C. All servers except DA7
D. The DA1, DA2 and DA6 servers only
Answer: D

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NO.23 When a non-local object authenticates or attaches to a server, eDirectory creates a
placeholder for this object. What is this placeholder called?
A. Backlink
B. Obituary
C. Attribute
D. Remote object
E. External reference
Answer: E

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NO.24 You are the eDirector administrator for the DigitalAir-Tree tree. You would like to move
some containers in your tree to align the tree structure more closely to the physical
structure of your organization. Given the information in the exhibits, without manually
changing any partition boundaries or replica placement, which containers can be moved?
A. Only the TICKETING container
B. The SLC, SYD and LGA containers
C. The SYD, LGA and CUSTSVC containers
D. All containers except DigitalAir-Tree and DigitalAir
E. The CUSTSVC, FLIGHTOPS, SYD and TICKETING containers.
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which statements regarding the extensible match feature of eDirectory 8.7 are true?
(Choose two.)
A. eDirectory 8.7 currently only supports an exact value match.
B. eDirectory 8.7 supports matching rules in the extensible match filter.
C. eDirectory 8.7 allows the inclusion of ACL attributes in a search via the extensible match
filter.
D. eDirectory 8.7 allows the inclusion of the distinguished name attributes in a search via the
extensible match filter.
E. eDirectory 8.7 allows the inclusion of partition-specific attributes in a search via the
extensible match filter.
Answer: A D

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NO.26 Which statements are true regarding replica types? (Choose two.)
A. The master replica controls the obituary process through the janitor process.
B. Master, read/write, and read-only replicas control partition boundary changes.
C. Master, read/write, and read-only replicas control creating, deleting, and moving objects.
D. The subordinate reference replica is the only replica that cannot be manually created by the
network administrator.
E. Master, read/write, read-only, and subordinate references contain a complete copy of all
object information of the partition.
Answer: A, D

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NO.27 Which statements are true regarding replica types? (Choose two.)
A. Subordinate references contain only the partition root object.
B. Master and read/write replicas are the only replicas that are automatically created.
C. A master or read/write replica must reside on a server where bindery services is used.
D. Subordinate references can be promoted to be the master replica without causing problems to the
NDS tree.
E. Master, read/write, read-only, and subordinate reference replicas can be manually created by
the network administrator.
Answer: A, C

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NO.28 Which aspects of the eDirectory environment are defined by the schema? (Choose 3.)
A. The steps used to process obituaries
B. The types of objects that can be created
C. The number of objects allowed in a partition
D. The locations an object can exist in the tree
E. What types of replicas can be held on a server
F. The total number of replicas that can be held by a server
G. The information that must be entered and maintained for specific objects
Answer: B, D, G

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NO.29 Your eDirectory tree doesn't change often. On average, about once every three months
partition changes are made as servers are added to the tree. There are very few additions,
deletions or modifications of objects. In general, how often should you perform a health
check on this tree?
A. Once a week
B. Once a month
C. Once every three months
D. Only when partition changes are made
E. When objects have been added or deleted
Answer: A

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NO.30 Which aspects of the eDirectory environment are defined by the schema? (Choose 3.)
A. The roles of different replica types
B. The syntax of the login script attribute
C. The steps used to process obituaries
D. The types of objects that can be created
E. The information required for an object to exist
F. The number of associations allowed for an object
G. The total number of replicas that can exist on a server
Answer: D, E, F

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Exam Code: 920-172
Exam Name: Nortel (NCSS-Nortel Communication Control Toolkit Ris.6.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 58 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Of the following Third Party software which two does Nortel approve to be installed on a Nortel
Communication Control Toolkit server? (Choose two.)
A. AntiVirus
B. FTP Server
C. pcAnywhere
D. Microsoft Office
Answer: AC

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NO.2 You have just completed a new install of NCCT Rls. 6.0 and have verified that it is configured properly
and operational. You have just finished backing up the NCCT Database and wish to backup the
Symposium TAPI Database. Which of the following would you do perform the backup?
A. Make copy of the spdb.mdb file located in "C:\\Program Files\\Nortel\\CCT\\TAPI"
B. Make copy of the m1spdb.mdb file located in "C:\\Program Files\\Nortel\\Communication Control
Toolkit\\TAPI"
C. Run NCCT Database Administrator and Select the TAPI Database from the Database Drop Down
Menu then Click Backup.
D. Run NCCT Database Administrator and Browse to the TAPI Database location "C:\\Program
Files\\Nortel\\CCT\\TAPI" then Click Backup.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You must configure the Bindings order of the network interface cards using Network Connections from
the Control Panel or My Network Places Properties. What order do the NIC have to be in?
A. The order does not matter.
B. ELAN Subnet first then the Nortel Server Subnet (CLAN) second
C. Nortel Server Subnet (CLAN) first then the ELAN Subnet second
D. Depends on the connection rate of each: the higher rate is listed first.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are doing a backup of the NCCT Database after making substantial changes. You are asked to
name your backup. What should you always include in the name of your backups?
A. The version of TAPI.
B. The version of NCCT.
C. The date the backup was made.
D. The name NCCT backup somewhere in the name.
Answer: B

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NO.5 The Embedded Local Area Network (ELAN Subnet) is a dedicated Ethernet TCP/IP Local Area
Network (LAN). The Customer Local Area Network (Nortel Server Subnet/CLAN) is the LAN to which
corporate services and resources connect. Which is not a rule for configuring the ELAN Subnet and
Nortel Server Subnet (CLAN)?
A. Configure the ELAN Subnet in the same subnet as the ELNK.
B. Configure the ELAN Subnet in a separate subnet from the Nortel Server Subnet.
C. The ELAN Subnet MAC address must be added before the Nortel Server Subnet MAC address.
D. Configure the ELAN Subnet and Nortel Server Subnet network as either completely separate or
integrated using a router.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You have been instructed to restore the current NCCT database schema. What is the file that you need
to use to restore the current database schema?
A. EmptyDB.zip
B. NCCT_Empty.zip
C. NCCT_Empty.bak
D. NNCCT_Empty.bak
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are upgrading to Nortel Communication Control Toolkit Rls. 6.0. TAPI 3.0 is currently running. To
what version of TAPI will you have to upgrade?
A. TAPI 4.1
B. TAPI 4.0
C. TAPI 3.1
D. an upgrade in not needed
Answer: C

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NO.8 When you install the Communication Control Toolkit server, you must ensure that you have enough
space allocated for the CCT database. What is the minimum and maximum directory size on the default
drive needed to install the NCCT database?
A. minimum of 1 GBytes and maximum size of 2.0 GBytes
B. minimum of 150 MBytes and maximum size of 1.0 GBytes
C. minimum of 68.1 MBytes and maximum size of 2.0 GBytes
D. minimum of 50.7 MBytes and maximum size of 2.1 GBytes
Answer: C

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NO.9 After you have restored the Symposium TAPI Database. What is the order in which the following
services need to be started?
A. NCCT Data Access Layer Service, NCCT TAPI Connector, NCCT Server Service Telephony Service,
ACDProxy Service
B. NCCT Data Access Layer Service, NCCT TAPI Connector, ACDProxy Service, Telephony
Service,NCCT Server Service
C. Telephony Service, ACDProxy Service, NCCT Data Access Layer Service, NCCT TAPI Connector,
NCCT Server Service.
D. NCCT Server Service, Telephony Service, ACDProxy Service, NCCT Data Access Layer Service,
NCCT TAPI Connector.
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are upgrading to Nortel Communication Control Toolkit Rls. 6.0. You have a Communications
Server 1000/Meridian 1 with Symposium Call Center with Nortel IVR. Which two of the following Service
Provider Software is installed? (Choose two.)
A. TAPI 3.0
B. TAPI 3.1
C. IPML 2.1
D. IPML 4.0
Answer: BC

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Exam Code: 920-159
Exam Name: Nortel (Ncss callpilot 2.x/3.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which three CallPilot features are supported by Business Communication Manager
(BCM) 3.0? (Choose three.)
A. ability to annotate faxes
B. ability to save voice messages
C. ability to reject passwords (such as 888888)
D. ability to set message sensitivity to urgent or Normal
Answer: A.B.D

NO.2 .When installing a 40-channel CallPilot 3.0 system using a 201i server and a CS 1000
system, how do you connect the SCSI connection to the server?
A. The SCSI connection to the 201i server is made with the low profiles right-angle SCIS
connector on the SCIS connector on the 201i server faceplate.
B. NTRH3502SCSI cable attached to the SCSI connection to the 201i server is made with the
CD-ROM drive SCSI cable NTRH1408 attached from the SCIS connector on the 201i server
faceplate to the SCSI adapter A0763912 on the CD-ROM drive
C. NTRH3502SCSI cable attached to the SCSI connection to the 201i server is made via the
backplane connector in the Media Gateway or Media Gateway Expansion with the multi I/O
cable (NTRH0912) to the next drive in the SCIS chain.
D. NTRH3502SCSI cable attached to the SCSI connection to the 201i server is madewith the
intermediate SCIS cable NTRH1408 that connect from the SCIS connector on the 201i server
faceplate to the I/O panel connector and the NTRH410 SCSIcable that connect from the I/O
panel connector to the next device in the SCSI chain.
Answer: A

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NO.3 When installing a 96-chabbel 3.0 system using a 1003rp server and a CS 1000 system, how
would you install the Nortel Network software feature key adapter?
A. The Nortel Networks software feature Key adapter is installed in its bracket on the
motherboard in the 102rp server.
B. The Nortel Networks software feature Key adapter is installed in the COM1 serial port
connector on the rear of the 1002rp server.
C. The Nortel Networks software feature Key adapter is installed in the COM1 serial port
connector on the rear of the 1002rp server.
D. The Nortel Networks software feature Key adapter is installed in the Parallel port connector
LPT1 on the rear of the 1002rp server.
Answer: D

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NO.4 .Exhibit
Prior to installing a CallPilot 3.0 system, you review, the Configuration Wizard worksheet.
The customer has provided category 5 cable connections to their corporate LAN for the
Switch Ethernet connection, the CallPilot Server Customer LAN (CLAN) Ethernet
connection, and the CallPilot Server Embedded LAN (ELAN) Ethernet connection. The
network address information (shown in the exhibit) for the Switch IP address, the CallPilot
server ELAN IP address, and the CallPilot Server CLAN IP address integrate with the
customer's internal network. What action would you take?
A. Proceed with the installation using the category 5 cable connections, IP addresses and Subnet
mask provided by the customer.
B. Proceed with the installation but do not use the category 5 cable connections provided by the
customer for the Switch Ethernet connection and the CallPilot server ELAN Ethernet
connection. Use a separate category 5 cable that connects directly from the switch to the ELAN
network interface connector on the server.
C. Inform the customer that IP address beginning with 192.168 are private address and if used
the ELAN will not be able to be connected to the internet.
D. Inform the customer that the ELAN must be on a separate IP network isolated from the
CLAN. Recommend that they use a dedicated hub that can either be supplied by Nortel Network
or a third party for the ELAN and recommend different IP addresses for switch and the ELAN
NIC.
Answer: D

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NO.5 .When provisioning the Embedded Local Area Network (ELAN) on a CS 1000 system for a
site with a CallPilot 3.0 system with 96 DSO channels, what number should you set the
maximum number of call registers for CSL input (CSQI in LD 17)?
A. 20
B. 96
C. 192
D. 255
Answer: C

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NO.6 When installing a 40-channel 3.0 system using a 201i server and a Meridian 1 Option 11C
mini switch, how should you set the SCSI ID on the Tandberg SLR5 tape drive
(NTRH9038)?
A. Rotate the dial on the SCIS ID rotary switch unit the arrow points to 3.
B. Use the blade of a screwdriver to press either the plus (+) or minus (? Button the SCSI ID
switch to set the SCIS ID to 5.
C. Use the blade of a screwdriver to set DIP switches as follows.
1=ON, 2=off, 3=Off, 4=Off, 5=Off
D. The SCSI ID for the Tandberg SLR5 tape drive (NTRH9038) is set when you run the
Configuration Wizard after you install the CallPilot system.
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are installing a CallPilot 3.0 system with 32 Voice channels, 8 Fax channels, and 4
ASR (automated speech recognition) Cannels using a CallPilot 702t server and a Meridian
1 IP Enable (IE) Option 61C switch. How many NTRB18CA MGate cards must be
installed in the switch to support this configuration?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.8 A site has a CallPilot server interworking with a Symposium server. Where are the
applications (announcement service, menus, etc.) stored to support Symposium to CallPilot
integration?
A. in a folder
B. in a mailbox
C. on the C drive
D. by a backup file
Answer: A

Nortel   920-159   920-159

NO.9 .XXXX .com has a CallPilot 3.0 configuration connected to a Meridian 1. the CallPilot
platform connect to the network loops in the IPE shelf through MGate cards. The MGate
cards plug into the Meridian 1 IPE shelf. Which three platform types connect using the
Mgate card? (Choose three.0?
A. 200i
B. 201i
C. 702t
D. 1001ro
E. 1002rp
Answer: A.B.C

NO.10 A site has a CallPilot 3.0 server. Which two administrative functions support the
web-based CallPilot Manager administrative application? (Choose two.)
A. Managing system configuration and backups
B. Creating application with Application Builder
C. Managing mailbox Users, groups, and permissions
D. Managing CallPilot Simple network Maintenance Protocol (SNMP) traps
Answer: A.C

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Exam Code: 920-344
Exam Name: Nortel (BCM50 Rls.3.0 and BCM200/400 Rls.4.0 Sales Engineering)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 62 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A network administrator needs to calculate the maximum number of voicemail ports required on their
BCM 400
system. Which two factors should be considered when making this determination? (Choose two.)
A. The range is 0 to 16 ports.
B. The range is 0 to 32 ports.
C. Each voicemail port requires one media channel resource.
D. Each voicemail port requires two signaling channel resources.
Answer: BC

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NO.2 A customer has several remote locations that they want to securely connect through the Internet. You
explain that using IPSec tunnels between these sites would provide this security; however, they are
concerned about it being able to
handle all of the remote locations. What is the maximum number of remote sites that can be connected to
a BCM50 using IPSec tunnels?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
Answer:A

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NO.3 In planning a network configuration for a customer there are tools available to help you with your plan.
Which tool should you use to determine the specific requirements for the system design, including pricing
information?
A. BCM Monitor
B. AppManager
C. Startup Profile
D. Enterprise Configurator
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which encryption method does a BCM system support when IPSec is configured on it?
A. PKI
B. RC4
C. AES
D. PPTP
Answer: C

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NO.5 Fallback is a feature that allows a call to progress when a VoIP trunk is unavailable or is not providing
adequate quality of service (QoS). By enabling PSTN fallback, you allow the system to check the
availability of the VoIP trunks and then switch the call to a PSTN line. For the PSTN fallback to work on a
suitable bandwidth, which two statements must be true on a BCM 200 platform? (Choose two.)
A. The QoS Monitor must be enabled.
B. The jitter buffer must be configured.
C. The Transmit threshold must be set.
D. Proactive Voice Quality Monitoring (PVQM) must be enabled.
E. IP sets must be configured to use the G.723 Codec.
Answer:AC

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NO.6 Which statement should be considered when you allocate DS30 channel Block resources using a 3/5
channel split configuration?
A. This configuration is achieved by assigning bus two to the voice data sector.
B. This configuration allocates three DS30 channel blocks to Media Bay Modules.
C. This configuration may be configured during system startup using the Startup Profile.
D. This configuration may be used to accommodate increased IP telephony or VoIP trunk requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A client has a BCM 400 that is performing all IPSec processing using software. They are concerned
about overloading the BCM 400 processor with IPSec traffic processing. What is the maximum number of
simultaneous tunnels?
A. 12 tunnels
B. 16 tunnels
C. 24 tunnels
D. 30 tunnels
Answer: B

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NO.8 A remote user has the ability to connect to an ISP and then to a specific route into a BCM that is
configured for IPSec
Remote User. The remote user can also print locally even while connected remotely to the BCM. Which
functionality does this describe?
A. split routing
B. dual routing
C. split tunneling
D. dual tunneling
Answer: C

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NO.9 A customer's new system will be configured with 55 IP telephones, an IVR system and a voicemail. This
system will also use over 30 analog and digital telephones. What should the DS30 split be for this
customer?
A. A 2/5 split
B. A 2/6 split
C. A 3/5 split
D. A 3/6 split
Answer: C

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NO.10 BCM supports a queue service discipline that allows packets to be serviced in an absolute priority
fashion or using a weighted-fair-queuing scheduler. This service discipline ensures that packets in the
highest priority queue are serviced quickly without starving the lower priority queues. How many quality of
service (QoS) queues does BCM Rls. 4.0 support?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 7
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 920-221
Exam Name: Nortel (Nortel Convered Campus ERS Installation and Configuration)
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Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A customer would like to configure an IP address for an existing VLAN on an Ethernet Routing Switch
5510. You use the following Command Line Interface (CLI) command sequence: From the initial CLI
prompt, enter privilege mode, enter config mode, enter config-if mode for the VLAN interface. Enter the
command, "ip address". What information do you enter next?
A.Enter the appropriate IP address of the backup CPU.
B.Enter the appropriate IP address and subnet mask in dotted decimal notation.
C.Enter the appropriate IP address for the out-of-band management port.
D.Enter the appropriate IP address for the in-band management port.
Answer:B

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NO.2 You are using the Nortel Network Command Line Interface (NNCLI) to modify a VLAN or a port. Which
NNCLI command mode are you using?
A.Global Configuration Mode
B.Interface Configuration Mode
C.Privileged EXEC Mode
D.Router Configuration Mode
Answer:B

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NO.3 If you do not know the IP address of an Ethernet Routing Switch 5510, how can you upload code?
A.Use Telnet.
B.Use Console Access.
C.Use the Web browser.
D.Use the Java Device Manager.
Answer:B

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about Power over Ethernet (PoE)? (Choose two.)
A.PoE requires a significant increase in power capacity.
B.PoE enables cooling systems and load-sharing power supplies.
C.PoE provides increased power, resiliency, and redundancy at low cost.
D.PoE is used to power IP telephones, Web cameras, and access points.
Answer:A D

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NO.5 You can use the User Interface (UI) button on the Ethernet Routing Switch 5500 to temporarily reset a
switch to the default IP address. Which two statements are true about the default IP address set via the UI
button? (Choose two.)
A.The default IP address overrides the IP address currently in use by the switch stack.
B.The default IP address overwrites the onfigured IP address settings that are set via console, Command
Line Interface (CLI), or Web.
C.The default IP address changes if there is a change in the state of the switch, such as if the switch joins
or leaves a stack.
D.The default IP address is saved in NVRAM across resets of the switch/stack.
Answer:A C

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Exam Code: 920-316
Exam Name: Nortel (SCCS/Express/TAPI/Web Client/Agent)
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NO.1 What is the recommended CPU specification for symposium Agent server in stand-alone
versus co-resident mode with TAPI for 100 agents, assuring Windows NT service pak5?
A. SA will only run on a Windows 2000 platform and so cannot be sized in this scenario
B. SA will support 100 active agents in either stand-alone or co-resident mode on a Pentium II
100 Mhz CPU clock speed
C. A Pentium II 400 Mhz CPU clock speed server can only support 100 Active Agents in a
stand-alone mode Symposium Agent server
D. SA will support 100 active agents in either stand alone or co-resident mode but requires a
Pentium III 600 Mhz CPU clock speed
Answer: B

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NO.2 Estimated wait time, position in queue, message option, massage recording and
announcements are all functionality of what type of port?
A. MIRAN port
B. CallPiLot ports
C. Meridian Mail ports
D. Voice Services Card ports
Answer: C

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NO.3 For Symposuim Agent (SA) to be fully operational in a Meridian1 or DMS environment,
what key component must be in place to monitor the client lines?
A. TAPI server must be installed to monitor the client lines
B. TAPI server must be installed to monitor the client lines but only if used to monitor or control
Multiple Appearance Directory Number (MADN) lines
C. There are no other requirements outside of Symposium Agent to monitor client lines.
D. There are no other requirements outside of Symposium Agent to monitor client lines.
Answer: B

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NO.4 An SECC contact center with 10 Supervisor clients logged in and using the real time
displays would be using how many of the 75 simultaneous real time sessions?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Answer: D

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NO.5 An enterprise wants to add desktop functionality that is flexible and able to respond to the
different needs of callers based on the skill set the calls is routed into. This mid-sized
organization of 100 agents has the expectation to grow to 150 over the next two years, but
will only accept a low-cost solution. What contact center product provides this flexibility?
A. Symposium Agent with the ability to present the correct screen to the agent based on business
rules
B. Symposium Web Center Portal with the ability to present e-mail, chat, an/or collaboration
screens based on customer requirement
C. Symposium Agent Greeting with its ability, based on skill-set, to customize information for
call presentation
D. Symposium TAPI SP with the ability, based on skillset, to route caller information with the
call delivery at the phoneset
Answer: A

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NO.6 Select three true statements of comparison of SECC 3.0 to SymposiumCallCenterServer
A. SECC connects to Option 11C Mini
B. Both provide host data exchange (HDX)
C. SECC has an automated scripting agent, SCCS does not
D. SECC is scaled to accommodate about 75% fewer trunks than SCCS
Answer: ACD

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NO.7 Symposium Agent and TAPI can co-reside on the same server if the agent count does not
exceed which?
A. 500
B. 600
C. 750
D. 1200
Answer: A

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NO.8 What Windows sub-components are used in the communication exchange between the
Symposium Agent server running IIS, and the agent desktop running internet Explorer?
A. DCOM and MTS
B. HTTP and DCOM
C. LDAP and MTS
D. ODBC and COM
Answer: B

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NO.9 Symposium Agent provides enterprises with the ability to add agents in groups and to
purchase licenses incrementally to meet the growth demands of the CTI
screen-pop-enabled agents. What license packages are available to configure?
A. 1, 10, 50, 100, 200, 500
B. 1, 5, 10, 25, 100, 250, 500
C. 1, 5, 10, 50, 100, 200, 300, 500
D. 1, 10, 25, 50, 75, 100, 300, 500
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two are true for using graphical real-time displays with SECC 3.0?
A. The maximum number of GRTDs is ten
B. GRTD must run on a stand-alone PC
C. SECC 3.0 is backward compatible with all versions of GRTD
D. Each GRTD that runs on a client PC uses one of the Supervisor/Realtime sessiosn of the
SECC
Answer: AD

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Exam Code: NS0-111
Exam Name: Network Appliance (Network Appliance Storage Associate Exam)
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Total Q&A: 83 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 To recover a file from a snapshot using a Windows client, what directory will a user look for?
A. snapshot
B. .snapshot
C. snap
D. ~snapshot
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are the syntax differences between the aggr copy command options and the vol copy command
options?
A. Aggr copy commands are case-sensitive, but vol copy commands are not case sensitive.
B. Aggr copy options do not work at the command line.
C. Aggr copy options must be listed in alphabetical order.
D. None; the syntax for both options are the same.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which one of the following console commands indicates that all expansion cards are installed in the
appropriate slots on the system board?
A. config -v
B. vol status -r
C. sysconfig -c
D. sysconfig -t
E. sysconfig -m
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which one of the following statements best describes the primary value of NVRAM?
A. Data integrity and improved response time for write operations
B. RAID protection
C. Data integrity and simplified backups
D. Separate processing of the network protocol stack
E. Separate processes for the disk subsystem
Answer: A

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NO.5 To recover a file from a snapshot using a UNIX client, what directory will a user look for?
A. snapshot
B. .snapshot
C. snap
D. ~snapshot
Answer: B

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NO.6 What two conditions should be verified prior to performing remote backups? (Choose 2)
A. The trust relationships between the source and the destination
B. That clustered failover is disabled
C. That rsh is enabled for remote access
D. That remote backup is enabled
Answer: AC

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NO.7 LUNs can be created using FilerView.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.8 If there are problems with user quotas being misapplied, the following two files should be checked:
A. /etc/quotas and /etc/rc
B. /etc/quotas and /etc/usermap.cfg
C. /etc/rc and /etc/usermap.cfg
D. /etc/quotas and /etc/quotarules
Answer: B

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NO.9 Choose the best way to minimize backup time.
A. Tape backup over the WAN connection
B. Utilizing a larger tape capacity
C. Organizing data in volumes and qtrees
D. Using multiple local tape drives
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is NDMP?
A. It is a standard protocol for controlling data transfers between primary and secondary storage devices
B. It is a proprietary protocol used for controlling data transfers between the storage appliance head and
disk drives
C. It is a networking trace analysis tool
D. It is a network management tool for storage appliances
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which two of the following statements about qtrees and volumes are true? (Choose 2)
A. A volume can contain qtrees, but qtrees cannot contain qtrees.
B. A quota can be set for a qtree, but not for an exported file system.
C. A qtree can contain a volume, but a volume cannot contain a qtree.
D. The default security style for a qtree is the security style of the volume root directory.
Answer: AD

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NO.12 Which one of the following commands is used to modify network interfaces on the storage appliance?
A. ipconfig
B. ifconfig
C. interface
D. ipset
Answer: B

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NO.13 Please click the exhibit button.
Which of the commands from the special boot menu will zero disks and install a new file system?
A. (1) Normal boot.
B. (2) Boot without /etc/rc.
C. (3) Change password.
D. (4) Initialize all disks.
E. (5) Maintenance mode boot.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which three actions can be performed with the restore command? (Choose 3)
A. View a list of files on tape.
B. Restore individual files and directories.
C. Restart a failed restore process.
D. Enter a number to specify how many filemarks should be skipped.
Answer: ABC

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NO.15 Which one of the following is a valid VLAN interface?
A. E3-9
B. E0
C. E3a
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which command would you use to display complete hardware information for a storage appliance?
A. vol status -v
B. sysconfig -v
C. sysstat
D. disk health -v
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which volume option will disable automatic snapshot creation?
A. Setting the nosnap volume option to on
B. Turning off access to the .snapshot directory
C. Setting the nosnapdir option to on
D. Setting snap reserve to 0%
Answer: A

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NO.18 You are performing a Data ONTAP upgrade and have loaded the system files onto the storage
appliance, and have
successfully issued the download command.
What is the next command you would enter to complete the upgrade procedure?
A. version
B. sysconfig -v
C. software
D. reboot
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which one of the following files will allow you to change the search order for hostname resolution?
A. /etc/hosts
B. /etc/resolv.conf
C. /etc/searchorder.conf
D. /etc/nsswitch.conf
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which line describes a 50M tree quota for a qtree named "mydata" on volume "vol1"? Target Type
Disk Files Thold Sdisk Sfiles
A. /vol/vol1/mydata tree 50M -
B. /vol/vol1 steve@tree 50M -
C. steve tree@/vol/vol1 50M -
D. /vol/vol1 qtree/steve 50M -
Answer: A

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